Pharmacology - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 2292
Cases of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis occur in severely immunocompromised patients. The drug of choice for the treatment of these infections is
Cases of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis occur in severely immunocompromised patients. The drug of choice for the treatment of these infections is
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The opportunistic mycoses are a group of fungal infections that occur almost exclusively in immunocompromised patients. A host of fungi, previously thought to be nonpathogenic, are known to be the etiologic agents of the opportunistic fungal infections. A certain few mycoses are seen with the greatest frequency and include zygomycosis, candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis. Aspergilli are widespread in the environment, and their conidia are easily dispersed and inhaled. These organisms are capable of causing a pulmonary infection in the immunocompromised patient, which rapidly disseminates and causes infection in virtually every organ. The drug of choice for the treatment of these infections is amphotericin B. A polyene macrolide antibiotic, amphotericin B works by forming pores in the fungal cell membrane. The other listed compounds are antifungal agents; however, their selectivity makes them unsuitable for the treatment of aspergillosis.
The opportunistic mycoses are a group of fungal infections that occur almost exclusively in immunocompromised patients. A host of fungi, previously thought to be nonpathogenic, are known to be the etiologic agents of the opportunistic fungal infections. A certain few mycoses are seen with the greatest frequency and include zygomycosis, candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis. Aspergilli are widespread in the environment, and their conidia are easily dispersed and inhaled. These organisms are capable of causing a pulmonary infection in the immunocompromised patient, which rapidly disseminates and causes infection in virtually every organ. The drug of choice for the treatment of these infections is amphotericin B. A polyene macrolide antibiotic, amphotericin B works by forming pores in the fungal cell membrane. The other listed compounds are antifungal agents; however, their selectivity makes them unsuitable for the treatment of aspergillosis.
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Which of the following is an analog of guanine (a purine) and is transformed by viral thymidine kinase before it can inhibit viral DNA polymerase in viruses that are actively replicating?
Which of the following is an analog of guanine (a purine) and is transformed by viral thymidine kinase before it can inhibit viral DNA polymerase in viruses that are actively replicating?
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The chemical type of an antiviral compound is often important in determining its potential mechanisms and, therefore, its utility against specific types of viruses. Interferon is a glycoprotein produced by many types of mammalian cells. It stimulates host mechanisms to prevent viral penetration and also inhibits viral protein synthesis. Idoxuridine, as its name implies, is a pyrimidine, which inhibits viral DNA polymerase. Zidovudine and zalcitabine are also pyrimidines, but they inhibit reverse transcriptase and act as chain terminators. Only acyclovir is a purine that requires viral thymidine kinase to be converted to an active phosphorylated form, which then inhibits viral DNA polymerase.
The chemical type of an antiviral compound is often important in determining its potential mechanisms and, therefore, its utility against specific types of viruses. Interferon is a glycoprotein produced by many types of mammalian cells. It stimulates host mechanisms to prevent viral penetration and also inhibits viral protein synthesis. Idoxuridine, as its name implies, is a pyrimidine, which inhibits viral DNA polymerase. Zidovudine and zalcitabine are also pyrimidines, but they inhibit reverse transcriptase and act as chain terminators. Only acyclovir is a purine that requires viral thymidine kinase to be converted to an active phosphorylated form, which then inhibits viral DNA polymerase.
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When educating a patient on a new beta blocker prescription which of the following safety information is most critical?
When educating a patient on a new beta blocker prescription which of the following safety information is most critical?
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The most critical safety information a patient must know when initiating beta blocker therapy is that they can not abruptly stop taking their beta blocker, due to the risk of rebound hypertension. A beta blocker would be more likely to cause bradycardia and a depressed effect than anxiety and tachycardia. Beta blockers are not associated with any type of esophagitis and they are not fat soluble, thus it is not crucial to eat a fatty meal with the drug in order to improve absorption.
The most critical safety information a patient must know when initiating beta blocker therapy is that they can not abruptly stop taking their beta blocker, due to the risk of rebound hypertension. A beta blocker would be more likely to cause bradycardia and a depressed effect than anxiety and tachycardia. Beta blockers are not associated with any type of esophagitis and they are not fat soluble, thus it is not crucial to eat a fatty meal with the drug in order to improve absorption.
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Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of calcium channel blockers?
Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of calcium channel blockers?
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All of these are possible side effects of calcium channel blockers, but the most common side effect is edema. Calcium channel blockers decrease blood pressure by hindering the influx of calcium into myocardial cells. They may also increase the diameter of blood vessels, which always results in decreased blood pressure.
All of these are possible side effects of calcium channel blockers, but the most common side effect is edema. Calcium channel blockers decrease blood pressure by hindering the influx of calcium into myocardial cells. They may also increase the diameter of blood vessels, which always results in decreased blood pressure.
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Which of the following medications is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker?
Which of the following medications is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker?
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Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker. Lisinopril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. Clonidine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist, and amiodarone is a sodium-channel blocker.
Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker. Lisinopril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. Clonidine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist, and amiodarone is a sodium-channel blocker.
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Which of the following heart medications is most likely to cause a chronic dry cough?
Which of the following heart medications is most likely to cause a chronic dry cough?
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Enalapril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. One of the most commonly reported side effects of ACE inhibitor use is a chronic dry cough. This is likely due to the medication's inhibition of kininase II (ACE), which results in a buildup of kinins in the respiratory tract.
None of the other medications listed are associated with persistent cough.
Enalapril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. One of the most commonly reported side effects of ACE inhibitor use is a chronic dry cough. This is likely due to the medication's inhibition of kininase II (ACE), which results in a buildup of kinins in the respiratory tract.
None of the other medications listed are associated with persistent cough.
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Which of the following conditions can be treated with hydrochlorothiazide?
Which of the following conditions can be treated with hydrochlorothiazide?
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Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, used primarily in the treatment of hypertension and edema.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, used primarily in the treatment of hypertension and edema.
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What is the antidote for overdose of warfarin?
What is the antidote for overdose of warfarin?
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The proper antidote for overdose of warfarin is vitamin K. Heparin will not reverse the effects of too much warfarin (it would only aggravate the problem). Protamine sulfate is the antidote for overdose of heparin. IV magnesium may be used to antidote digoxin if digibind is unavailable.
The proper antidote for overdose of warfarin is vitamin K. Heparin will not reverse the effects of too much warfarin (it would only aggravate the problem). Protamine sulfate is the antidote for overdose of heparin. IV magnesium may be used to antidote digoxin if digibind is unavailable.
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What class of drug is losartan?
What class of drug is losartan?
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Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB). This class of drugs lowers blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is useful for patients who cannot tolerate ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors' adverse effects.
Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB). This class of drugs lowers blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is useful for patients who cannot tolerate ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors' adverse effects.
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Diltiazem is an example of what class of cardiovascular medication?
Diltiazem is an example of what class of cardiovascular medication?
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Diltiazem is an example of a calcium channel blocker. This class of drugs reduces blood pressure by relaxing smooth muscles in the walls of arteries, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance.
Diltiazem is an example of a calcium channel blocker. This class of drugs reduces blood pressure by relaxing smooth muscles in the walls of arteries, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance.
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Which of the following antidepressants is also used for smoking cessation?
Which of the following antidepressants is also used for smoking cessation?
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Bupropion is an antidepressant used for smoking cessation. None of the other medications listed are used for smoking cessation.
Bupropion is an antidepressant used for smoking cessation. None of the other medications listed are used for smoking cessation.
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Sertraline, paroxetine, and citalopram, are all classified as what type of antidepressant?
Sertraline, paroxetine, and citalopram, are all classified as what type of antidepressant?
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Sertraline, paroxetine, and Citalopra are all selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs). This class of drug works by blocking serotonin re-uptake in the synapse, thus increasing post-synaptic serotonin stimulation. They are one of the most widely used class of antidepressants in the United States and many parts of the world.
Sertraline, paroxetine, and Citalopra are all selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs). This class of drug works by blocking serotonin re-uptake in the synapse, thus increasing post-synaptic serotonin stimulation. They are one of the most widely used class of antidepressants in the United States and many parts of the world.
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Zolpidem belongs in what drug class?
Zolpidem belongs in what drug class?
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Zolpidem is a short acting nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic. It's actions are similar to benzodiazepine drugs in that it stimulates GABAa receptors at the same location as benzodiazepines. It is used in insomnia for initiating sleep, though it's short half life (3 hours) means it is not generally considered effective for maintaining sleep.
Zolpidem is a short acting nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic. It's actions are similar to benzodiazepine drugs in that it stimulates GABAa receptors at the same location as benzodiazepines. It is used in insomnia for initiating sleep, though it's short half life (3 hours) means it is not generally considered effective for maintaining sleep.
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What class of drugs is diazepam?
What class of drugs is diazepam?
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Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. This class of drugs works by potentiating the effects of GABA, our primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, at the GABAa receptor.
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. This class of drugs works by potentiating the effects of GABA, our primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, at the GABAa receptor.
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All of the following are common anticonvulsants except .
All of the following are common anticonvulsants except .
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All of the answers given are common anticonvulsant medications except risperidone, which is a second generation atypical antipsychotic used in schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
All of the answers given are common anticonvulsant medications except risperidone, which is a second generation atypical antipsychotic used in schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
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Lamotrigine carries a black-box warning about what side effect?
Lamotrigine carries a black-box warning about what side effect?
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Lamotrigine carries a black box warning about the following side effects:
- Stevens–Johnson syndrome
- Toxic epidermal necrolysis
- DRESS syndrome (drug reaction/rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms)
- Aseptic meningitis
Lamotrigine carries a black box warning about the following side effects:
- Stevens–Johnson syndrome
- Toxic epidermal necrolysis
- DRESS syndrome (drug reaction/rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms)
- Aseptic meningitis
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Phenelzine is what class of drug?
Phenelzine is what class of drug?
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Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Drugs in this class work by inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzymes, the enzymes responsible for the break down of serotonin, dopamine, and adrenaline.
Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Drugs in this class work by inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzymes, the enzymes responsible for the break down of serotonin, dopamine, and adrenaline.
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Bromocriptine belongs to what class of drug?
Bromocriptine belongs to what class of drug?
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Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used in the treatment for Parkinson's disease, pituitary tumors, and type 2 diabetes.
Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used in the treatment for Parkinson's disease, pituitary tumors, and type 2 diabetes.
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A patient taking haloperidol complains of abnormal, unintentional movements of his tongue and face. The nurse knows that the patient is experiencing which of the following side effects of haloperidol?
A patient taking haloperidol complains of abnormal, unintentional movements of his tongue and face. The nurse knows that the patient is experiencing which of the following side effects of haloperidol?
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All of the listed options are side effects of haloperidol, but tardive dyskinesia (TD) is the only one that manifests with involuntary, dyskinetic movements in their face, lips, tongue, trunk, and extremities. TD more frequently occurs among elderly female patients taking long-term dopamine-antagonist medications. Dizziness, weakness, convulsions, seizures, and anxiety are also side effects of haloperidol. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome presents with fever and high/unstable blood pressure, muscle cramps and tremors, altered mental status (such as delirium, agitation, or a coma).
All of the listed options are side effects of haloperidol, but tardive dyskinesia (TD) is the only one that manifests with involuntary, dyskinetic movements in their face, lips, tongue, trunk, and extremities. TD more frequently occurs among elderly female patients taking long-term dopamine-antagonist medications. Dizziness, weakness, convulsions, seizures, and anxiety are also side effects of haloperidol. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome presents with fever and high/unstable blood pressure, muscle cramps and tremors, altered mental status (such as delirium, agitation, or a coma).
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is experiencing a panic attack. You are instructed to give the patient a dose of lorazepam. Which of the drug classes below describes lorazepam?
You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is experiencing a panic attack. You are instructed to give the patient a dose of lorazepam. Which of the drug classes below describes lorazepam?
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The correct answer is "benzodiazepine," as lorazepam, also known as Ativan, is a benzodiazepine drug. Benzodiazepines act by increasing the efficacy of the neurotransmitter, GABA, when it acts upon its particular receptors. They have potent anti-anxiety properties, among other properties, and are frequently given during the initial phase of a panic attack to calm the patient.
On the other hand, the other choices are incorrect. Phenobarbital is an example of a barbiturate. Proproanolol is an example of a beta-blocker. Tamsulosin is an example of an alpha-blocker. Methamphetamine is an example of an amphetamine.
The correct answer is "benzodiazepine," as lorazepam, also known as Ativan, is a benzodiazepine drug. Benzodiazepines act by increasing the efficacy of the neurotransmitter, GABA, when it acts upon its particular receptors. They have potent anti-anxiety properties, among other properties, and are frequently given during the initial phase of a panic attack to calm the patient.
On the other hand, the other choices are incorrect. Phenobarbital is an example of a barbiturate. Proproanolol is an example of a beta-blocker. Tamsulosin is an example of an alpha-blocker. Methamphetamine is an example of an amphetamine.
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