Other Pharmacological Drugs - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 168
Which of the following is a potential side effect of prednisone?
Which of the following is a potential side effect of prednisone?
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There are many potential side effects of prednisone, including all those listed in the answer choices, headache, fatigue, acne, seizures, upset stomach, changes in mood, difficulty breathing, dry cough, vomiting, depression, heartburn, muscle weakness, irregular heart beat, tremors, inability to properly thermoregulate, and many others.
There are many potential side effects of prednisone, including all those listed in the answer choices, headache, fatigue, acne, seizures, upset stomach, changes in mood, difficulty breathing, dry cough, vomiting, depression, heartburn, muscle weakness, irregular heart beat, tremors, inability to properly thermoregulate, and many others.
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Allopurinol is used for what condition?
Allopurinol is used for what condition?
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Allopurinol is a purine analog and xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic gout.
Allopurinol is a purine analog and xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic gout.
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of osteoporosis?
Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of osteoporosis?
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Alendronic acid (trade name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates reduce bone loss by encouraging apoptosis in osteoclasts.
Infliximab is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) blocker used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and several other autoimmune conditions. Sitagliptin (trade name Januvia) is a diabetes medication. Budesonide/formoterol (trade name Symbicort) is a combination long acting beta agonist and corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma.
Alendronic acid (trade name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates reduce bone loss by encouraging apoptosis in osteoclasts.
Infliximab is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) blocker used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and several other autoimmune conditions. Sitagliptin (trade name Januvia) is a diabetes medication. Budesonide/formoterol (trade name Symbicort) is a combination long acting beta agonist and corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma.
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A client being treated for type II diabetes has recently been prescribed an oral hyperglycemic medication and has inquired how the medications will keep his blood sugar levels under control. The nurse informs the patient the medication prescribed will reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity but will not increase insulin production.
Based on this description, which diabetic medication has this client been prescribed?
A client being treated for type II diabetes has recently been prescribed an oral hyperglycemic medication and has inquired how the medications will keep his blood sugar levels under control. The nurse informs the patient the medication prescribed will reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity but will not increase insulin production.
Based on this description, which diabetic medication has this client been prescribed?
Tap to reveal answer
The only medication mentioned that does not actually stimulate insulin production is Metformin. This medication is a Biguanide, it's mechanism of action includes decreasing hepatic glucose production, and increases insulin sensitivity.
The only medication mentioned that does not actually stimulate insulin production is Metformin. This medication is a Biguanide, it's mechanism of action includes decreasing hepatic glucose production, and increases insulin sensitivity.
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The nurse anticipates administration of milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide). Which of the following patient conditions may affect the nurse’s decision to administer magnesium hydroxide?
The nurse anticipates administration of milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide). Which of the following patient conditions may affect the nurse’s decision to administer magnesium hydroxide?
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The nurse must consider potential side effects of medications before administering them. Constipation, diarrhea, metabolic acidosis, and acid rebound are potential side effects of magnesium hydroxide. A dose of magnesium hydroxide may potentially exacerbate the patient’s current condition if he is constipated. As an antacid, magnesium hydroxide is indicated for peptic ulcers, stress ulcers, indigestion, and reflex esophagitis.
The nurse must consider potential side effects of medications before administering them. Constipation, diarrhea, metabolic acidosis, and acid rebound are potential side effects of magnesium hydroxide. A dose of magnesium hydroxide may potentially exacerbate the patient’s current condition if he is constipated. As an antacid, magnesium hydroxide is indicated for peptic ulcers, stress ulcers, indigestion, and reflex esophagitis.
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When Allopurinol is prescribed to a client, it is best for the nurse to include the following instructions:
When Allopurinol is prescribed to a client, it is best for the nurse to include the following instructions:
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The nurse should instruct a patient on Allopurinol to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day to reduce the risk of kidney stone formation.
The nurse should instruct a patient on Allopurinol to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day to reduce the risk of kidney stone formation.
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The client prescribed cholestyramine has been given instructions for taking the medication. The nurse would recognize a need for further instructions if the client said:
The client prescribed cholestyramine has been given instructions for taking the medication. The nurse would recognize a need for further instructions if the client said:
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Cholestyramine should be taken with meals and water. The dosage should be administered once or twice daily, with a maximum of six times daily. Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract to prevent its reabsorption.
Cholestyramine should be taken with meals and water. The dosage should be administered once or twice daily, with a maximum of six times daily. Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract to prevent its reabsorption.
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The nurse prepares to administer medications on the psychiatric unit. The patient is prescribed phenelzine sulfate for depression. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority education when administering this medication?
The nurse prepares to administer medications on the psychiatric unit. The patient is prescribed phenelzine sulfate for depression. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority education when administering this medication?
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Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that treats depression. Patients who take MAOIs should avoid foods with tyramine due to an increased risk for hypertensive crisis. Tyramine-rich foods include those that are fermented, heavily marinated, pickled, smoked, or heavily marinated, also, chocolate and alcoholic beverages have significant amounts of tyramine. In addition to education about diet modification, nurses must educate patients of the signs of hypertensive crisis, which are headache, sweating, palpitations, stiff neck, and intracranial hemorrhage. All of the other listed patient educations are essential, but the priority is to avoid tyramine due to the risk for hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening.
Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that treats depression. Patients who take MAOIs should avoid foods with tyramine due to an increased risk for hypertensive crisis. Tyramine-rich foods include those that are fermented, heavily marinated, pickled, smoked, or heavily marinated, also, chocolate and alcoholic beverages have significant amounts of tyramine. In addition to education about diet modification, nurses must educate patients of the signs of hypertensive crisis, which are headache, sweating, palpitations, stiff neck, and intracranial hemorrhage. All of the other listed patient educations are essential, but the priority is to avoid tyramine due to the risk for hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening.
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The psychiatric nurse cares for a patient with major depressive disorder admitted after a suicide attempt. The primary care provider has prescribed fluoxetine, which the patient has never taken before. Which of the following statements is important for the nurse to say to the patient?
The psychiatric nurse cares for a patient with major depressive disorder admitted after a suicide attempt. The primary care provider has prescribed fluoxetine, which the patient has never taken before. Which of the following statements is important for the nurse to say to the patient?
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Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed to patients diagnosed with depression. It may cause changes in appetite and weight, increase anxiety and insomnia, or cause bradycardia or palpitations. It is most important for the nurse to educate the patient that the therapeutic effect of fluoxetine may take up to 4 weeks, as the patient has a previous suicide attempt, and may experience suicide ideation before the effect occurs.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed to patients diagnosed with depression. It may cause changes in appetite and weight, increase anxiety and insomnia, or cause bradycardia or palpitations. It is most important for the nurse to educate the patient that the therapeutic effect of fluoxetine may take up to 4 weeks, as the patient has a previous suicide attempt, and may experience suicide ideation before the effect occurs.
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A 26 year old pregnant client presents to labor and delivery in premature labor, the doctor has ordered a tocolytic medication to help in stopping the contractions.
Which of the following medications is effective in managing premature labor contractions?
A 26 year old pregnant client presents to labor and delivery in premature labor, the doctor has ordered a tocolytic medication to help in stopping the contractions.
Which of the following medications is effective in managing premature labor contractions?
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Terbutaline sulfate is a tocolytic agent, as well as a bronchodilator effective in stopping premature labor contractions. Both Pitocin and Misoprostol are used to induce labor, calcium gluconate in labor is used to reverse magnesium sulfate another tocolytic. Naprosyn is an NSAID.
Terbutaline sulfate is a tocolytic agent, as well as a bronchodilator effective in stopping premature labor contractions. Both Pitocin and Misoprostol are used to induce labor, calcium gluconate in labor is used to reverse magnesium sulfate another tocolytic. Naprosyn is an NSAID.
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You are the nurse at a psychiatry clinic taking care of a 47-year old male who complains of three months of depressed mood and fatigue. His physician starts him on venlafaxine. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of venlafaxine?
You are the nurse at a psychiatry clinic taking care of a 47-year old male who complains of three months of depressed mood and fatigue. His physician starts him on venlafaxine. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of venlafaxine?
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The correct answer is "Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)." This is correct because venlafaxine functions by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, and thus is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Venlafaxine is used to treat a number of conditions including depression, anxiety, panic attacks, and social phobia, among others. In addition to its anti-depressant properties, it is also useful in that it can provide the benefit of increased energy in some patients due to the norepinephrine reuptake inhibition (effectively increasing the effect of norepinephrine).
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition (SSRI) is incorrect because venlafaxine is an SNRI, not an SSRI. An example of an SSRI is fluoxetine.
Monoamine oxidase inhibition (MAOI) is incorrect because venlafaxine is an SNRI, not an MAOI. An example of an MAOI is phenelzine.
An example of a GABA agonist is phenobarbital, a barbiturate.
An example of a beta-adrenergic blocker is propranolol.
The correct answer is "Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)." This is correct because venlafaxine functions by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, and thus is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Venlafaxine is used to treat a number of conditions including depression, anxiety, panic attacks, and social phobia, among others. In addition to its anti-depressant properties, it is also useful in that it can provide the benefit of increased energy in some patients due to the norepinephrine reuptake inhibition (effectively increasing the effect of norepinephrine).
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition (SSRI) is incorrect because venlafaxine is an SNRI, not an SSRI. An example of an SSRI is fluoxetine.
Monoamine oxidase inhibition (MAOI) is incorrect because venlafaxine is an SNRI, not an MAOI. An example of an MAOI is phenelzine.
An example of a GABA agonist is phenobarbital, a barbiturate.
An example of a beta-adrenergic blocker is propranolol.
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You are the nurse taking care of a 24-year old female with major depressive disorder. She is started on phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). To avoid serious adverse effects, including hypertensive crisis, you should warn her to avoid which of the following foods?
You are the nurse taking care of a 24-year old female with major depressive disorder. She is started on phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). To avoid serious adverse effects, including hypertensive crisis, you should warn her to avoid which of the following foods?
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The correct answer is "aged cheeses." This is the correct answer because MAOI's, when combined with food or drink products containing the metabolite, tyramine, have the potential to cause serious adverse effects including hypertensive crisis. Tyramine is found most commonly in aged cheeses and cured meats. Thus, since this patient is taking an MAOI, she should be advised to avoid aged cheeses.
Carrots, beets, grapefruit juice, and green, leafy vegetables do not need to be avoided in patients taking MAOI's.
The correct answer is "aged cheeses." This is the correct answer because MAOI's, when combined with food or drink products containing the metabolite, tyramine, have the potential to cause serious adverse effects including hypertensive crisis. Tyramine is found most commonly in aged cheeses and cured meats. Thus, since this patient is taking an MAOI, she should be advised to avoid aged cheeses.
Carrots, beets, grapefruit juice, and green, leafy vegetables do not need to be avoided in patients taking MAOI's.
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You are the nurse taking care of a patient with schizophrenia. You administer the patient's medications and note that he is receiving haloperidol. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of haloperidol?
You are the nurse taking care of a patient with schizophrenia. You administer the patient's medications and note that he is receiving haloperidol. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of haloperidol?
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The correct answer is "Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist."
This is the correct answer, as haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic, also known as a typical antipsychotic medication, and functions by selectively antagonizing dopaminergic D2 receptors. Haloperidol is used to treat a number of conditions including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder (manic phase), acute psychosis, tics from Tourette syndrome, and delirium, among others.
Increased efficiency of GABA receptor binding describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines, not haloperidol.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like fluoxetine and escitalopram.
Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like venlafaxine and desvenlafaxine.
Norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like buproprion and methylphenidate.
The correct answer is "Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist."
This is the correct answer, as haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic, also known as a typical antipsychotic medication, and functions by selectively antagonizing dopaminergic D2 receptors. Haloperidol is used to treat a number of conditions including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder (manic phase), acute psychosis, tics from Tourette syndrome, and delirium, among others.
Increased efficiency of GABA receptor binding describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines, not haloperidol.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like fluoxetine and escitalopram.
Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like venlafaxine and desvenlafaxine.
Norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of haloperidol. This describes medications like buproprion and methylphenidate.
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You are the nurse in a primary care clinic taking care of a patient with spastic bladder. Her physician prescribes oxybutynin for symptom relief. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?
You are the nurse in a primary care clinic taking care of a patient with spastic bladder. Her physician prescribes oxybutynin for symptom relief. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?
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The correct answer is "Antagonism of M1, M2, and M3 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors."
This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the way in which oxybutynin exhibits its anticholinergic properties, which help to relieve urinary frequency/urgency and bladder spasm. In patients with spastic bladder, oxybutynin exhibits its anticholinergic effects most significantly on the smooth muscle of the bladder detrusor muscle, which helps to treat the patients' symptoms associated with spasm of the muscle, which often manifests as urinary frequency or urgency, with or without urinary incontinence.
Calcium-channel blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Verapamil and amlodipine are examples of calcium-channel blockers.
Beta-adrenergic blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Propranolol and esmolol are examples of beta-adrenergic blockers.
Alpha-adrenergic blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Tamsulosin and doxazosin are examples of alpha-adrenergic blockers.
Direct thrombin inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Argatroban and lepirudin are examples of direct thrombin inhibitors.
The correct answer is "Antagonism of M1, M2, and M3 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors."
This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the way in which oxybutynin exhibits its anticholinergic properties, which help to relieve urinary frequency/urgency and bladder spasm. In patients with spastic bladder, oxybutynin exhibits its anticholinergic effects most significantly on the smooth muscle of the bladder detrusor muscle, which helps to treat the patients' symptoms associated with spasm of the muscle, which often manifests as urinary frequency or urgency, with or without urinary incontinence.
Calcium-channel blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Verapamil and amlodipine are examples of calcium-channel blockers.
Beta-adrenergic blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Propranolol and esmolol are examples of beta-adrenergic blockers.
Alpha-adrenergic blockade does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Tamsulosin and doxazosin are examples of alpha-adrenergic blockers.
Direct thrombin inhibition does not describe the mechanism of action of oxybutynin. Argatroban and lepirudin are examples of direct thrombin inhibitors.
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When Allopurinol is prescribed to a client, it is best for the nurse to include the following instructions:
When Allopurinol is prescribed to a client, it is best for the nurse to include the following instructions:
Tap to reveal answer
The nurse should instruct a patient on Allopurinol to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day to reduce the risk of kidney stone formation.
The nurse should instruct a patient on Allopurinol to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day to reduce the risk of kidney stone formation.
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The client prescribed cholestyramine has been given instructions for taking the medication. The nurse would recognize a need for further instructions if the client said:
The client prescribed cholestyramine has been given instructions for taking the medication. The nurse would recognize a need for further instructions if the client said:
Tap to reveal answer
Cholestyramine should be taken with meals and water. The dosage should be administered once or twice daily, with a maximum of six times daily. Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract to prevent its reabsorption.
Cholestyramine should be taken with meals and water. The dosage should be administered once or twice daily, with a maximum of six times daily. Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract to prevent its reabsorption.
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Which of the following is a potential side effect of prednisone?
Which of the following is a potential side effect of prednisone?
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There are many potential side effects of prednisone, including all those listed in the answer choices, headache, fatigue, acne, seizures, upset stomach, changes in mood, difficulty breathing, dry cough, vomiting, depression, heartburn, muscle weakness, irregular heart beat, tremors, inability to properly thermoregulate, and many others.
There are many potential side effects of prednisone, including all those listed in the answer choices, headache, fatigue, acne, seizures, upset stomach, changes in mood, difficulty breathing, dry cough, vomiting, depression, heartburn, muscle weakness, irregular heart beat, tremors, inability to properly thermoregulate, and many others.
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Allopurinol is used for what condition?
Allopurinol is used for what condition?
Tap to reveal answer
Allopurinol is a purine analog and xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic gout.
Allopurinol is a purine analog and xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic gout.
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of osteoporosis?
Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of osteoporosis?
Tap to reveal answer
Alendronic acid (trade name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates reduce bone loss by encouraging apoptosis in osteoclasts.
Infliximab is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) blocker used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and several other autoimmune conditions. Sitagliptin (trade name Januvia) is a diabetes medication. Budesonide/formoterol (trade name Symbicort) is a combination long acting beta agonist and corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma.
Alendronic acid (trade name Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates reduce bone loss by encouraging apoptosis in osteoclasts.
Infliximab is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) blocker used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and several other autoimmune conditions. Sitagliptin (trade name Januvia) is a diabetes medication. Budesonide/formoterol (trade name Symbicort) is a combination long acting beta agonist and corticosteroid used in the treatment of asthma.
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A client being treated for type II diabetes has recently been prescribed an oral hyperglycemic medication and has inquired how the medications will keep his blood sugar levels under control. The nurse informs the patient the medication prescribed will reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity but will not increase insulin production.
Based on this description, which diabetic medication has this client been prescribed?
A client being treated for type II diabetes has recently been prescribed an oral hyperglycemic medication and has inquired how the medications will keep his blood sugar levels under control. The nurse informs the patient the medication prescribed will reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity but will not increase insulin production.
Based on this description, which diabetic medication has this client been prescribed?
Tap to reveal answer
The only medication mentioned that does not actually stimulate insulin production is Metformin. This medication is a Biguanide, it's mechanism of action includes decreasing hepatic glucose production, and increases insulin sensitivity.
The only medication mentioned that does not actually stimulate insulin production is Metformin. This medication is a Biguanide, it's mechanism of action includes decreasing hepatic glucose production, and increases insulin sensitivity.
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