Ethics, Processing, and Care - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 1728
Which of the following describes the professional role of the nurse in a healthcare setting?
Which of the following describes the professional role of the nurse in a healthcare setting?
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All of these are important professional roles of the nurse in a healthcare setting.
All of these are important professional roles of the nurse in a healthcare setting.
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You are a new nurse taking care of a patient with congestive heart failure. You see an order to administer 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline over 6 hours. Later on in your shift, you realize that you mistakenly administered 2000 mL of 0.9% normal saline over 2 hours, and now the patient is slightly short of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
You are a new nurse taking care of a patient with congestive heart failure. You see an order to administer 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline over 6 hours. Later on in your shift, you realize that you mistakenly administered 2000 mL of 0.9% normal saline over 2 hours, and now the patient is slightly short of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
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The correct answer is "immediately inform the covering physician." This is the correct choice because in this case, a medical error was committed, and the most appropriate immediate course of action is to let the patient's covering physician know, so that they can determine what effect this may have on the patient, assess the patient, and determine what, if any, immediate intervention needs to be performed to ensure that the adverse effect on the patient is minimized.
While it is possible in this case, given that the patient has congestive heart failure, and that they may have been fluid overloaded by the administration of excess fluids, that they will need to be diuresed with furosemide, this medication cannot be administered without the order of the covering physician, and it would be inappropriate to administer furosemide without their orders.
While your hospital's safety oversight committee may ultimately need to be informed of this incident, the most immediate priority is patient safety, and as such, the patient's physician should be notified of the medical error before anyone else so that they can best manage any immediate consequences of the error.
It would be highly inappropriate to not inform anyone of the error, as an unintended dose of IV fluids was administered and this can be dangerous in a patient with congestive heart failure. Any delay, whether due to not telling anyone, or to conferring with co-nurses, in informing the supervising physician would be inappropriate and potentially dangerous to the patient.
The correct answer is "immediately inform the covering physician." This is the correct choice because in this case, a medical error was committed, and the most appropriate immediate course of action is to let the patient's covering physician know, so that they can determine what effect this may have on the patient, assess the patient, and determine what, if any, immediate intervention needs to be performed to ensure that the adverse effect on the patient is minimized.
While it is possible in this case, given that the patient has congestive heart failure, and that they may have been fluid overloaded by the administration of excess fluids, that they will need to be diuresed with furosemide, this medication cannot be administered without the order of the covering physician, and it would be inappropriate to administer furosemide without their orders.
While your hospital's safety oversight committee may ultimately need to be informed of this incident, the most immediate priority is patient safety, and as such, the patient's physician should be notified of the medical error before anyone else so that they can best manage any immediate consequences of the error.
It would be highly inappropriate to not inform anyone of the error, as an unintended dose of IV fluids was administered and this can be dangerous in a patient with congestive heart failure. Any delay, whether due to not telling anyone, or to conferring with co-nurses, in informing the supervising physician would be inappropriate and potentially dangerous to the patient.
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Which of the following nursing roles are eligible for prescriptive rights?
Which of the following nursing roles are eligible for prescriptive rights?
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Of the nursing types listed, only nurse practitioners are can be authorized to write prescriptions for pharmaceutical drugs.
Of the nursing types listed, only nurse practitioners are can be authorized to write prescriptions for pharmaceutical drugs.
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Communicating patient values, preferences and expressed needs to other members of health care team is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Communicating patient values, preferences and expressed needs to other members of health care team is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
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Communicating patient values, preferences and expressed needs to other members of health care team is an example of patient-centered care, which is defined as the act of recognizing the full agency of the patient by providing compassionate and coordinated care based on respect for patient preferences, values, and needs.
Communicating patient values, preferences and expressed needs to other members of health care team is an example of patient-centered care, which is defined as the act of recognizing the full agency of the patient by providing compassionate and coordinated care based on respect for patient preferences, values, and needs.
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Using tools such as algorithm flow charts and cause-effect analyses to make processes of care more explicit is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Using tools such as algorithm flow charts and cause-effect analyses to make processes of care more explicit is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
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Using tools such as algorithm flow charts and cause-effect analyses to make processes of care more explicit is an example of quality improvement, which is defined as the use of data to monitor the outcomes of treatment practices and other efforts to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems.
Using tools such as algorithm flow charts and cause-effect analyses to make processes of care more explicit is an example of quality improvement, which is defined as the use of data to monitor the outcomes of treatment practices and other efforts to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems.
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Asking for help from a co-worker or superior is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Asking for help from a co-worker or superior is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
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Asking for help from a co-worker or superior is an example of teamwork and collaboration, which is defined as the ability to function effectively within nursing or integrated teams. Skills should include the ability to have open, mutually respectful communication, shared decision making, and a focus on patient care.
Asking for help from a co-worker or superior is an example of teamwork and collaboration, which is defined as the ability to function effectively within nursing or integrated teams. Skills should include the ability to have open, mutually respectful communication, shared decision making, and a focus on patient care.
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Using a checklist for tasks when doing an in-home visit is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
Using a checklist for tasks when doing an in-home visit is an example of what Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
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Using a checklist for tasks when doing an in-home visit is an example of saftey, which is defined as employment of practices that minimize the risk of harm to patients and providers both by individual performance and the use of systems (such as checklists) to avoid errors.
Using a checklist for tasks when doing an in-home visit is an example of saftey, which is defined as employment of practices that minimize the risk of harm to patients and providers both by individual performance and the use of systems (such as checklists) to avoid errors.
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The nurse cares for a patient hospitalized for 5 days with pneumonia. He is about to be discharged and the nurse is providing discharge instructions to the patient and the family. Which statement made by the patient’s family should most concern the nurse?
The nurse cares for a patient hospitalized for 5 days with pneumonia. He is about to be discharged and the nurse is providing discharge instructions to the patient and the family. Which statement made by the patient’s family should most concern the nurse?
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When a patient has an infection and is prescribed antibiotics, the patient should always take the full course of the medication and never discontinue the medication. It is easy for patients to believe they can stop taking the medication when the symptoms are resolved, but the nurse needs to educate the patient to continue the full regimen. The rest of the statements are accurate; the patient must get adequate rest, eat well, use the incentive spirometer, and stay away from others who are sick until he is well.
When a patient has an infection and is prescribed antibiotics, the patient should always take the full course of the medication and never discontinue the medication. It is easy for patients to believe they can stop taking the medication when the symptoms are resolved, but the nurse needs to educate the patient to continue the full regimen. The rest of the statements are accurate; the patient must get adequate rest, eat well, use the incentive spirometer, and stay away from others who are sick until he is well.
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A 39-year-old man presents to the ER with weakness, confusion, and vertigo. His heart rate is 91 and bounding, blood pressure is
, temperature is
, and blood glucose is
. He is non-diabetic, he is not on any medication, and he denies recreational drug use. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A 39-year-old man presents to the ER with weakness, confusion, and vertigo. His heart rate is 91 and bounding, blood pressure is , temperature is
, and blood glucose is
. He is non-diabetic, he is not on any medication, and he denies recreational drug use. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
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The most likely cause of his symptoms is hypoglycemia, which is defined as a blood glucose below
in a non-diabetic patient. The symptoms of hypoglycemia include altered consciousness, tremors, weakness, vertigo, headaches, heart palpitations, and a bounding pulse.
A temperature of
is not considered abnormal as it may reflect a normal variation in body temperature.
His blood pressure is slightly elevated, but it is unclear whether this is typical for him or whether this represents a significant change from his normal blood pressure. Regardless it would not likely be sufficiently elevated to cause his symptoms.
It is also possible he may be experiencing a panic attack, but in the presence of his depressed blood sugar (and absence of signs of anxiety), hypoglycemia is the most likely cause of his symptoms.
The most likely cause of his symptoms is hypoglycemia, which is defined as a blood glucose below in a non-diabetic patient. The symptoms of hypoglycemia include altered consciousness, tremors, weakness, vertigo, headaches, heart palpitations, and a bounding pulse.
A temperature of is not considered abnormal as it may reflect a normal variation in body temperature.
His blood pressure is slightly elevated, but it is unclear whether this is typical for him or whether this represents a significant change from his normal blood pressure. Regardless it would not likely be sufficiently elevated to cause his symptoms.
It is also possible he may be experiencing a panic attack, but in the presence of his depressed blood sugar (and absence of signs of anxiety), hypoglycemia is the most likely cause of his symptoms.
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Abdominal rigidity and decreased bowel sounds would raise your suspicions of what condition?
Abdominal rigidity and decreased bowel sounds would raise your suspicions of what condition?
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Abdominal rigidity and decreased bowel sounds are classic signs of peritontis. In addition, the patient will often want to lie very still, as any motion often increases pain. Cystitis, ulcerative colitis, and cholecystitis all may cause significant abdominal tenderness but would not generally result in rigidity or decreased bowel sounds.
Abdominal rigidity and decreased bowel sounds are classic signs of peritontis. In addition, the patient will often want to lie very still, as any motion often increases pain. Cystitis, ulcerative colitis, and cholecystitis all may cause significant abdominal tenderness but would not generally result in rigidity or decreased bowel sounds.
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Why are blind finger-sweeps not recommended in infants with foreign objects in their oral cavities or airways?
Why are blind finger-sweeps not recommended in infants with foreign objects in their oral cavities or airways?
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Blind finger sweeps are not recommended in an infant with airway restriction due to a foreign object because they may inadvertently force the object deeper into the airway. A finger sweep should only be used if the object can be visualized. Injury to the oral cavity would not be a primary concern in the case of airway restriction, and a finger sweep would not be expected to trigger either gasping or vomiting in an infant.
Blind finger sweeps are not recommended in an infant with airway restriction due to a foreign object because they may inadvertently force the object deeper into the airway. A finger sweep should only be used if the object can be visualized. Injury to the oral cavity would not be a primary concern in the case of airway restriction, and a finger sweep would not be expected to trigger either gasping or vomiting in an infant.
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All of the following are forms of shock except .
All of the following are forms of shock except .
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The four main categories of shock are as follows:
- Cardiogenic: Sudden inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to the body, most commonly due to acute myocardial infarction.
- Hypovolemic: Due to loss of fluids or hemorrhage.
- Septic: Also known as endotoxic shock. Dangerously low blood pressure as the result of systemic inflammatory response to infection.
- Anaphylactic: Systemic inflammatory response to an allergen.
The four main categories of shock are as follows:
- Cardiogenic: Sudden inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to the body, most commonly due to acute myocardial infarction.
- Hypovolemic: Due to loss of fluids or hemorrhage.
- Septic: Also known as endotoxic shock. Dangerously low blood pressure as the result of systemic inflammatory response to infection.
- Anaphylactic: Systemic inflammatory response to an allergen.
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Droplet precautions are designed to stop the spread of infections diseases that travel through droplets. These droplets may land on the mucosa of the nose or mouth after a host sneezes or coughs. Which of the following conditions does not require the use of droplet precautions?
Droplet precautions are designed to stop the spread of infections diseases that travel through droplets. These droplets may land on the mucosa of the nose or mouth after a host sneezes or coughs. Which of the following conditions does not require the use of droplet precautions?
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Varicella requires airborne precautions. Staff caring for patients with varicella should be immune. One's immunity to varicella can be confirmed by a blood test.
Varicella requires airborne precautions. Staff caring for patients with varicella should be immune. One's immunity to varicella can be confirmed by a blood test.
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Standard precautions are a set of guidelines that are designed to prevent the spread of infection by exposure to an individual or their bodily fluids. Which of the following is not considered a standard precaution?
Standard precautions are a set of guidelines that are designed to prevent the spread of infection by exposure to an individual or their bodily fluids. Which of the following is not considered a standard precaution?
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Standard precautions should be utilized in the care of every patient. Hand hygiene before and after patient contact is always required. Clean, functioning, equipment should always be available. The use of personal protective gear when there is potential to blood or bodily fluid exposure is critical. This includes the proper disposal of soiled materials such as linens. However, it is not necessary for patients to be housed in private rooms unless they are affected by an infectious disease. If private rooms for infectious individuals are unavailable, it is acceptable to place patients in cohorts of the same infectious disease.
Standard precautions should be utilized in the care of every patient. Hand hygiene before and after patient contact is always required. Clean, functioning, equipment should always be available. The use of personal protective gear when there is potential to blood or bodily fluid exposure is critical. This includes the proper disposal of soiled materials such as linens. However, it is not necessary for patients to be housed in private rooms unless they are affected by an infectious disease. If private rooms for infectious individuals are unavailable, it is acceptable to place patients in cohorts of the same infectious disease.
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Washed red blood cells are generally administered to which of the following patient populations?
Washed red blood cells are generally administered to which of the following patient populations?
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Washed red blood cells are generally prepared for patients with a history of severe allergic reaction to blood transfusion. Washed red blood cells are not generally required in patients with kidney disease, patient who are immunocompromised, or patients with metastatic disease.
Washed red blood cells are generally prepared for patients with a history of severe allergic reaction to blood transfusion. Washed red blood cells are not generally required in patients with kidney disease, patient who are immunocompromised, or patients with metastatic disease.
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What is the normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult female?
What is the normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult female?
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The normal range for hemoglobin in an adult female is
. Hemoglobin levels above that range may be indicative of chronic low blood oxygen, while lower levels of hemoglobin are seen in anemia.
The normal range for hemoglobin in an adult female is . Hemoglobin levels above that range may be indicative of chronic low blood oxygen, while lower levels of hemoglobin are seen in anemia.
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What is the normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult male?
What is the normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult male?
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The normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult male is
. Hemoglobin levels above that range may be indicative of chronic low blood oxygen, while lower levels of hemoglobin are seen in anemia.
The normal range for hemoglobin levels in an adult male is . Hemoglobin levels above that range may be indicative of chronic low blood oxygen, while lower levels of hemoglobin are seen in anemia.
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What should you expect to hear when percussing the seventh intercostal space along the right midclavicular line?
What should you expect to hear when percussing the seventh intercostal space along the right midclavicular line?
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When percussing the seventh intercostal space along the right midclavicular line, you should expect to hear a dull note, as this is directly over the solid mass of the liver.
The border of the liver can be found by percussing in a descending line along the intercostal spaces of the right midclavicular line, starting at the clavicle. The superior border of the liver can be measured at the point where percussion transforms from resonant or hyperresonant (indicating the air-filled lung) to dull (indicating the solid mass of the liver).
When percussing the seventh intercostal space along the right midclavicular line, you should expect to hear a dull note, as this is directly over the solid mass of the liver.
The border of the liver can be found by percussing in a descending line along the intercostal spaces of the right midclavicular line, starting at the clavicle. The superior border of the liver can be measured at the point where percussion transforms from resonant or hyperresonant (indicating the air-filled lung) to dull (indicating the solid mass of the liver).
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On palpating the abdominal aorta, the diameter of the aorta is measured at 3cm. This indicates an abdominal aorta that is .
On palpating the abdominal aorta, the diameter of the aorta is measured at 3cm. This indicates an abdominal aorta that is .
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A healthy and normal abdominal aorta will measure between 2.5-3cm in diameter. An abdominal aorta over 3cm and under 5cm in diameter is considered to be enlarged, and surgery to prevent abdominal aortic aneurism is generally performed on abdominal aortas that surpass 5cm in diameter in females or 5.5cm in diameter in males.
A healthy and normal abdominal aorta will measure between 2.5-3cm in diameter. An abdominal aorta over 3cm and under 5cm in diameter is considered to be enlarged, and surgery to prevent abdominal aortic aneurism is generally performed on abdominal aortas that surpass 5cm in diameter in females or 5.5cm in diameter in males.
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A patient reports to urgent care for colicky pain in the upper right quadrant that they rate as a seven out of ten. The night before they ate a fatty meal with two glasses of wine. Which of the following tests would help you asses for cholecystitis?
A patient reports to urgent care for colicky pain in the upper right quadrant that they rate as a seven out of ten. The night before they ate a fatty meal with two glasses of wine. Which of the following tests would help you asses for cholecystitis?
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A positive Murphy's sign is an indication of cholecystitis, or gallbladder inflammation. Testing for Murphy's sign is performed during an abdominal exam by asking the patient to breathe out slowly while the fingers of the examiner are slid under the right costal margin and held in place with firm pressure. The patient is then asked to inhale, which forces the abdominal contents upward. Murphy's sign is considered positive if the patient winces or flinches when breathing in, due to pain when the inflamed gallbladder comes in contact with the examiner's fingertips.
Rovsing's sign, psoas sign, and McBurney's point are all tests for appendicitis.
A positive Murphy's sign is an indication of cholecystitis, or gallbladder inflammation. Testing for Murphy's sign is performed during an abdominal exam by asking the patient to breathe out slowly while the fingers of the examiner are slid under the right costal margin and held in place with firm pressure. The patient is then asked to inhale, which forces the abdominal contents upward. Murphy's sign is considered positive if the patient winces or flinches when breathing in, due to pain when the inflamed gallbladder comes in contact with the examiner's fingertips.
Rovsing's sign, psoas sign, and McBurney's point are all tests for appendicitis.
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