Conditions and Treatments - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 5640
Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
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aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
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A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
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This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
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Which of the following increase the risk of endometriosis?
Which of the following increase the risk of endometriosis?
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The incidence of endometriosis increases significantly in individuals with a family history of the condition. Other contributing factors are sedentary lifestyle (lack of exercise), presence of an intrauterine device, a diet high in fat, the presence of estrogen dominance, and liver dysfunction (due to decreased estrogen metabolism).
The incidence of endometriosis increases significantly in individuals with a family history of the condition. Other contributing factors are sedentary lifestyle (lack of exercise), presence of an intrauterine device, a diet high in fat, the presence of estrogen dominance, and liver dysfunction (due to decreased estrogen metabolism).
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Which of the following is true of type I diabetes?
Which of the following is true of type I diabetes?
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Type I diabetes is an autoimmune process that typically presents in young children in the form of DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis). This potentially life threatening condition is treated with IV insulin. Type II diabetes is insulin resistance, and is found in older adults (typically those who are overweight).
Type I diabetes is an autoimmune process that typically presents in young children in the form of DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis). This potentially life threatening condition is treated with IV insulin. Type II diabetes is insulin resistance, and is found in older adults (typically those who are overweight).
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The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
The term placenta previa describes which of the following conditions?
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In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
In placenta previa, the placenta develops in such a way that all or part of it is positioned in the lower one-third of the uterus, placing it between the fetus and the cervix. This can cause the placenta to tear and bleed. The most common sign is painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester (generally after week 32).
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Most pituitary adenomas are non functional (incidentalomas). Of the functional adenomas, which are the most common?
Most pituitary adenomas are non functional (incidentalomas). Of the functional adenomas, which are the most common?
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Prolactinomas (prolactin-secreting) make up 30% of functional pituitary adenomas. The second most common type are somatotrophic (growth hormone-secreting) adenomas, which make up 15%, followed by gonadotrophic (gonadotrophin-releasing) adenomas, which make up 10% of reported cases. Null cell adenomas are non functional (they do not secrete hormones).
Prolactinomas (prolactin-secreting) make up 30% of functional pituitary adenomas. The second most common type are somatotrophic (growth hormone-secreting) adenomas, which make up 15%, followed by gonadotrophic (gonadotrophin-releasing) adenomas, which make up 10% of reported cases. Null cell adenomas are non functional (they do not secrete hormones).
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Which of the following is a bacterium frequently responsible for causing urinary tract infections?
Which of the following is a bacterium frequently responsible for causing urinary tract infections?
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Escherichia coli is a bacteria that lives in the normal flora of the intestines. However, it is also a frequent cause of urinary tract infections. Candida albicans is a fungus that frequently causes thrush and vaginitis. Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for leprosy or Hansen's disease. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete responsible for syphilis. Lastly, Clostridium botulinum is responsible for botulism as a result of it's secretion of a neurotoxin.
Escherichia coli is a bacteria that lives in the normal flora of the intestines. However, it is also a frequent cause of urinary tract infections. Candida albicans is a fungus that frequently causes thrush and vaginitis. Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for leprosy or Hansen's disease. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete responsible for syphilis. Lastly, Clostridium botulinum is responsible for botulism as a result of it's secretion of a neurotoxin.
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Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
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HIV is easily spread through all of the listed body fluids with the exception of saliva. A person may not contract HIV through exchange of saliva during activities such as kissing or sharing eating utensils.
HIV is easily spread through all of the listed body fluids with the exception of saliva. A person may not contract HIV through exchange of saliva during activities such as kissing or sharing eating utensils.
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A 75 year old female with end-stage renal failure asks her nurse for advice about her diet. Knowing that this patient must adhere to a low-potassium diet, the nurse cautions her against which of the following foods?
A 75 year old female with end-stage renal failure asks her nurse for advice about her diet. Knowing that this patient must adhere to a low-potassium diet, the nurse cautions her against which of the following foods?
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Orange juice is very high in potassium. One 12oz glass of orange juice contains 705mg of potassium. This could easily increase blood potassium to dangerous levels. The other fruits and vegetables listed are all low-potassium foods suitable for consumption by individuals needing to follow a low potassium diet.
Orange juice is very high in potassium. One 12oz glass of orange juice contains 705mg of potassium. This could easily increase blood potassium to dangerous levels. The other fruits and vegetables listed are all low-potassium foods suitable for consumption by individuals needing to follow a low potassium diet.
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The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following to prevent dislodgment of the pacing catheter after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein has been made?
The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following to prevent dislodgment of the pacing catheter after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein has been made?
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The nurse should instruct the patient to limit movement and abduction of right arm. The muscles and movement of the right arm most directly effect the placement of the pacing catheter.
The nurse should instruct the patient to limit movement and abduction of right arm. The muscles and movement of the right arm most directly effect the placement of the pacing catheter.
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A nurse is looking over a basic metabolic panel for a 69 year old male. She notices that his BUN is
. This value is .
A nurse is looking over a basic metabolic panel for a 69 year old male. She notices that his BUN is . This value is .
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BUN, or blood urea nitrogen, is a measurement of the kidney's ability to excrete urea, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism. This patient's BUN is within normal range: the reference range for BUN is
.
BUN, or blood urea nitrogen, is a measurement of the kidney's ability to excrete urea, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism. This patient's BUN is within normal range: the reference range for BUN is .
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Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
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75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
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The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
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The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
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Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
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Which of the following are common cardiac signs with hyperthyroidism?
Which of the following are common cardiac signs with hyperthyroidism?
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A cardiac workup on a patient with hyperthyroidism will often reveal high cardiac output, tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, a prominent (fourth heart sound) S4, and flow murmurs. This condition is not associated with low cardiac output and while it may be seen with murmurs it is not specifically associated with atrial stenosis.
A cardiac workup on a patient with hyperthyroidism will often reveal high cardiac output, tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, a prominent (fourth heart sound) S4, and flow murmurs. This condition is not associated with low cardiac output and while it may be seen with murmurs it is not specifically associated with atrial stenosis.
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Which of the following terms denotes a menstrual cycle that is irregular, of shorter duration than normal, and of excessive volume or duration?
Which of the following terms denotes a menstrual cycle that is irregular, of shorter duration than normal, and of excessive volume or duration?
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Menometrorrhagia is a term used to describe a menstrual cycle that is irregular, of shorter duration than normal, and of excessive volume or duration. Amenorrhea is the absence of a menstrual cycle. Metrorrhagia is a term for a menstrual cycle that is of normal flow duration and volume, but which is irregular and has a shorter-than normal cycle length. Oligomenorrhea describes a menstrual cycle that is longer than 35 days, often characterized by a prolonged follicular phase.
Menometrorrhagia is a term used to describe a menstrual cycle that is irregular, of shorter duration than normal, and of excessive volume or duration. Amenorrhea is the absence of a menstrual cycle. Metrorrhagia is a term for a menstrual cycle that is of normal flow duration and volume, but which is irregular and has a shorter-than normal cycle length. Oligomenorrhea describes a menstrual cycle that is longer than 35 days, often characterized by a prolonged follicular phase.
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Which of the following is a possible cause of vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy?
Which of the following is a possible cause of vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy?
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All of these could be possible reasons for bleeding in early pregnancy, including physiologic or implantation bleeding. Bleeding may indicate threatened miscarriage or other serious condition, or it may simply be due to the implantation of the embryo into the endometrium.
All of these could be possible reasons for bleeding in early pregnancy, including physiologic or implantation bleeding. Bleeding may indicate threatened miscarriage or other serious condition, or it may simply be due to the implantation of the embryo into the endometrium.
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A nurse working in labor and delivery is caring for a client that has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. The client has been informed by the physician she is now at risk for a spontaneous abortion. The client asks the nurse about possible interventions.
The nurse is aware the procedure performed for an incompetent cervix is called .
A nurse working in labor and delivery is caring for a client that has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. The client has been informed by the physician she is now at risk for a spontaneous abortion. The client asks the nurse about possible interventions.
The nurse is aware the procedure performed for an incompetent cervix is called .
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A Shirodkar procedure involves sewing a suture in and around the cervix to hold it closed. This is usually performed within the first trimester and later removed when the risk of miscarriage has lessened.
A Shirodkar procedure involves sewing a suture in and around the cervix to hold it closed. This is usually performed within the first trimester and later removed when the risk of miscarriage has lessened.
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A pregnant woman at 43 weeks gestation is having labor augmented with oxytocin infusion. Which of the following best categorizes this particular drug?
A pregnant woman at 43 weeks gestation is having labor augmented with oxytocin infusion. Which of the following best categorizes this particular drug?
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Oxytocin is often used to help augment labor by inducing contractions. This hormone is naturally made in the body and works as an anti-diuretic hormone (thus promotes the excretion of water). In labor, this hormone also works to stimulate uterine contractiity.
Oxytocin is often used to help augment labor by inducing contractions. This hormone is naturally made in the body and works as an anti-diuretic hormone (thus promotes the excretion of water). In labor, this hormone also works to stimulate uterine contractiity.
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