Conditions and Treatments - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 5640
At what point does preeclampsia develop into eclampsia?
At what point does preeclampsia develop into eclampsia?
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Preeclampsia develops into eclampsia at the onset of seizures. Seizures are tonic-clonic and may appear during pregnancy, during labor, or postpartum. It is relatively rare, affecting only approximately 1.2-1.8% of pregnancies.
Preeclampsia develops into eclampsia at the onset of seizures. Seizures are tonic-clonic and may appear during pregnancy, during labor, or postpartum. It is relatively rare, affecting only approximately 1.2-1.8% of pregnancies.
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Which of the following is a typical clinical sign of aortic insufficiency in a pediatric patient?
Which of the following is a typical clinical sign of aortic insufficiency in a pediatric patient?
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Exercise intolerance is a typical clinical finding in pediatric patients with aortic stenosis. This condition may present with any of the other symptoms but mania, excessive sweating, and epigastric pain are not directly associated with aortic insufficiency in this population.
Exercise intolerance is a typical clinical finding in pediatric patients with aortic stenosis. This condition may present with any of the other symptoms but mania, excessive sweating, and epigastric pain are not directly associated with aortic insufficiency in this population.
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What condition typically presents as symmetric proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower extremities, often without the presence of distal muscle weakness?
What condition typically presents as symmetric proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower extremities, often without the presence of distal muscle weakness?
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Polymyositis is characterized by symmetric proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower extremities, often without the presence of distal muscle weakness. The first sign is often weakness in the thighs while walking, the inability to rise from a seated position without assistance, or the inability to raise the arms above the head.
Dermatomyositis generally includes a characteristic periorbital rash. Weakness is expressed in the neck, arms, and legs. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an ascending paralysis: symptoms start in the hands and feet, then spread proximally as it progresses. Muscular weakness in myasthenia gravis is often especially expressed in muscles of the face and head, especially those that control eye and eyelid movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and speaking.
Polymyositis is characterized by symmetric proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower extremities, often without the presence of distal muscle weakness. The first sign is often weakness in the thighs while walking, the inability to rise from a seated position without assistance, or the inability to raise the arms above the head.
Dermatomyositis generally includes a characteristic periorbital rash. Weakness is expressed in the neck, arms, and legs. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an ascending paralysis: symptoms start in the hands and feet, then spread proximally as it progresses. Muscular weakness in myasthenia gravis is often especially expressed in muscles of the face and head, especially those that control eye and eyelid movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and speaking.
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90% of adult rhabdomyomas are located in what area?
90% of adult rhabdomyomas are located in what area?
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A rhabdomyoma is a benign tumors of striated muscle. 90% of adult rhabdomyomas present as round masses in the neck.
A rhabdomyoma is a benign tumors of striated muscle. 90% of adult rhabdomyomas present as round masses in the neck.
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What condition is characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity?
What condition is characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity?
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Paget's disease of bone is a condition characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity. This results in increased calcification of bones, especially prominent in the skull, pelvis, femur, and tibia.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is an issue with collagen formation that causes fragile bones and multiple fractures. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma calls, and giant cell tumors are rare tumors that generally originate from the epiphysis of long bones (with no effect on bone deposition).
Paget's disease of bone is a condition characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity. This results in increased calcification of bones, especially prominent in the skull, pelvis, femur, and tibia.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is an issue with collagen formation that causes fragile bones and multiple fractures. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma calls, and giant cell tumors are rare tumors that generally originate from the epiphysis of long bones (with no effect on bone deposition).
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What is the most common time for miscarriages to occur?
What is the most common time for miscarriages to occur?
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The most common time for miscarriage to occur is during the first trimester, between 8 and 12 weeks. This may even occur before an individual is aware that they are pregnant. Chromosomal abnormalities are identified in approximately 50% of first trimester miscarriages, while later miscarriages may be more likely in individuals with uterine malformations or cervical incompetence.
The most common time for miscarriage to occur is during the first trimester, between 8 and 12 weeks. This may even occur before an individual is aware that they are pregnant. Chromosomal abnormalities are identified in approximately 50% of first trimester miscarriages, while later miscarriages may be more likely in individuals with uterine malformations or cervical incompetence.
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At what age will Paget's disease of the bone generally first present?
At what age will Paget's disease of the bone generally first present?
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Paget's disease of the bone generally presents in after the age of 55, and is very rare in younger individuals. The prevalence in individuals over 55 is as high as 3%.
Paget's disease of the bone generally presents in after the age of 55, and is very rare in younger individuals. The prevalence in individuals over 55 is as high as 3%.
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Which of the following is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone?
Which of the following is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone?
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Osteoid osteoma is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone.
Fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and Ewing's sarcoma are all malignancies.
Osteoid osteoma is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone.
Fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and Ewing's sarcoma are all malignancies.
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What is the most common primary malignancy of the bone (excluding hematopoietic malignancies)?
What is the most common primary malignancy of the bone (excluding hematopoietic malignancies)?
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Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignancy of bone, excluding hematopoietic malignancies, making up approximately 20% of all primary bone cancers.
Fibrosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma are relatively rare conditions, and osteoid osteomas are is non-malignant.
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignancy of bone, excluding hematopoietic malignancies, making up approximately 20% of all primary bone cancers.
Fibrosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma are relatively rare conditions, and osteoid osteomas are is non-malignant.
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About 75% of osteosarcomas occur in what region?
About 75% of osteosarcomas occur in what region?
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Roughly 75% of osteosarcomas occur in the distal femur or around the knee. The next most common site is the upper arm. Spinal or pelvic involvement are rare.
Roughly 75% of osteosarcomas occur in the distal femur or around the knee. The next most common site is the upper arm. Spinal or pelvic involvement are rare.
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Which of the following classes of medication is not used for treatment of migraine headaches?
Which of the following classes of medication is not used for treatment of migraine headaches?
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Migraine headaches are commonly treated at first by over the counter (OTC) medications such as NSAIDS and acetaminophen. Other treatment options include triptans, antidepressants such as amitriptyline, and anti-hypertensives (beta blockers and calcium channel blockers).
Migraine headaches are commonly treated at first by over the counter (OTC) medications such as NSAIDS and acetaminophen. Other treatment options include triptans, antidepressants such as amitriptyline, and anti-hypertensives (beta blockers and calcium channel blockers).
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The majority of osteosarcomas occur in what age group?
The majority of osteosarcomas occur in what age group?
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The majority of cases of osteosarcoma are in children and adolescents between the age of 10 and 25. It's the most common type of bone cancer in children and young adults, and the third most common cancer in teens.
The majority of cases of osteosarcoma are in children and adolescents between the age of 10 and 25. It's the most common type of bone cancer in children and young adults, and the third most common cancer in teens.
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Which of the following is a neurological movement disorder typified by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain?
Which of the following is a neurological movement disorder typified by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain?
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Dystonia is a condition of sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain. Torticollis is a form of dystonia specific to the muscles of the neck. Ballismus is a condition of rapid, violent involuntary motions. Geniospasm is specific to the mentalis muscle, causing involuntary movements of the jaw.
Dystonia is a condition of sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain. Torticollis is a form of dystonia specific to the muscles of the neck. Ballismus is a condition of rapid, violent involuntary motions. Geniospasm is specific to the mentalis muscle, causing involuntary movements of the jaw.
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Which of the following herbs has been shown to be effective in prevention of migraine symptoms?
Which of the following herbs has been shown to be effective in prevention of migraine symptoms?
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Petasites hybridus (butterbur) is a flowering plant of the family asteraceae. It has been shown in studies to reduce the frequency of migraine headaches by as much as 68%. None of the other herbs listed have any significant medicinal benefit in migraine headaches.
Petasites hybridus (butterbur) is a flowering plant of the family asteraceae. It has been shown in studies to reduce the frequency of migraine headaches by as much as 68%. None of the other herbs listed have any significant medicinal benefit in migraine headaches.
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You are the nurse assessing a 16-year old girl who is the star of her high school's gymanstics team who is admitted to the hospital for fatigue and weakness. You examine her and notice that she appears hypovolemic, her hair appears thin and brittle, her parotid glands appear swollen, her knuckles have excoriations, and her teeth appear slightly yellow. You suspect that she most likely suffers from which of the following?
You are the nurse assessing a 16-year old girl who is the star of her high school's gymanstics team who is admitted to the hospital for fatigue and weakness. You examine her and notice that she appears hypovolemic, her hair appears thin and brittle, her parotid glands appear swollen, her knuckles have excoriations, and her teeth appear slightly yellow. You suspect that she most likely suffers from which of the following?
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The correct answer is bulimia nervosa.
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a patient classically consumes large amounts of food (binge eating) and then induces vomiting (purge behavior) to expel the food prior to absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. As such, the patient restricts their ability to gain weight. Patients with bulimia nervosa are frequently successful, high-achieving individuals under a great deal of stress, and often may be adolescent athletes, as patients in this population frequently have specific weight cutoffs that they must achieve for their respective sports/activities. Some signs of bulimia nervosa, as exhibited by this patient, are thin, brittle hair, a hypovolemic appearance (due to frequent vomiting), excoriations on the knuckles (from self-inducing vomiting with their hands), yellow discoloration of the teeth (from the acidity of vomitus), and swelling of the parotid glands (colloquially known as "chipmunk cheeks") as a response to the frequent vomiting. Patients with bulimia may also use other methods to purge themselves of food and drinks including diuretic use, and/or laxative use.
A key distinction between bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa is that in bulimia the patient exhibits a form of purge behavior following binge eating, whereas in anorexia, classically, the patient simply restricts eating rather than binging and purging.
Hypothyroidism is not a correct answer choice because while this patient is exhibiting lethargy, weakness, and brittle hair, given the constellation of her other symptoms and exam findings, it is less consistent with her presentation than bulimia nervosa. If these symptoms persisted following treatment for bulimia, then hypothyroidism could be considered as a concurrent finding.
Exogenous use of testosterone would not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.
Marfan's syndrome would also not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.
The correct answer is bulimia nervosa.
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a patient classically consumes large amounts of food (binge eating) and then induces vomiting (purge behavior) to expel the food prior to absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. As such, the patient restricts their ability to gain weight. Patients with bulimia nervosa are frequently successful, high-achieving individuals under a great deal of stress, and often may be adolescent athletes, as patients in this population frequently have specific weight cutoffs that they must achieve for their respective sports/activities. Some signs of bulimia nervosa, as exhibited by this patient, are thin, brittle hair, a hypovolemic appearance (due to frequent vomiting), excoriations on the knuckles (from self-inducing vomiting with their hands), yellow discoloration of the teeth (from the acidity of vomitus), and swelling of the parotid glands (colloquially known as "chipmunk cheeks") as a response to the frequent vomiting. Patients with bulimia may also use other methods to purge themselves of food and drinks including diuretic use, and/or laxative use.
A key distinction between bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa is that in bulimia the patient exhibits a form of purge behavior following binge eating, whereas in anorexia, classically, the patient simply restricts eating rather than binging and purging.
Hypothyroidism is not a correct answer choice because while this patient is exhibiting lethargy, weakness, and brittle hair, given the constellation of her other symptoms and exam findings, it is less consistent with her presentation than bulimia nervosa. If these symptoms persisted following treatment for bulimia, then hypothyroidism could be considered as a concurrent finding.
Exogenous use of testosterone would not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.
Marfan's syndrome would also not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.
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A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
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This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
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Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
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aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
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60% of cases of stomach cancer in the United States are associated with what infection?
60% of cases of stomach cancer in the United States are associated with what infection?
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Helicobacter pylori is present in the stomach of 60% of individuals with gastric cancer. Cancer in these cases may be caused by chronic inflammation at the site of infection, resulting in metaplasia.
Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella enterica, and Escherichia coli are all common causes of gastroenteritis but are not associated with malignancy.
Helicobacter pylori is present in the stomach of 60% of individuals with gastric cancer. Cancer in these cases may be caused by chronic inflammation at the site of infection, resulting in metaplasia.
Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella enterica, and Escherichia coli are all common causes of gastroenteritis but are not associated with malignancy.
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
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Smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure are among the most common risk factors for development of renal cell carcinoma. Other risk factors include genetic susceptibility, diuretic use, and male gender. Alcohol consumption has not been associated with increased rates of renal cell cancer.
Smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure are among the most common risk factors for development of renal cell carcinoma. Other risk factors include genetic susceptibility, diuretic use, and male gender. Alcohol consumption has not been associated with increased rates of renal cell cancer.
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Renal cell carcinoma can cause what paraneoplastic syndrome?
Renal cell carcinoma can cause what paraneoplastic syndrome?
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Renal cell carcinoma can cause hypercalcemia, due to secretion of PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein).
SIADH and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome are both associated with small-cell lung cancer, while polymyositis is associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Renal cell carcinoma can cause hypercalcemia, due to secretion of PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein).
SIADH and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome are both associated with small-cell lung cancer, while polymyositis is associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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