Conditions and Treatments - NCLEX-PN
Card 1 of 5640
Which of the following is considered to be a normal age-related ocular degeneration?
Which of the following is considered to be a normal age-related ocular degeneration?
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Presbyopia, or farsightedness, is caused by a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye, and is considered a normal change with aging.
Glaucoma, blepharitis, and cataracts all carry increased risk with advanced age, but are considered to be abnormal and/or pathological changes.
Presbyopia, or farsightedness, is caused by a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye, and is considered a normal change with aging.
Glaucoma, blepharitis, and cataracts all carry increased risk with advanced age, but are considered to be abnormal and/or pathological changes.
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At what point is a child with varicella no longer contagious?
At what point is a child with varicella no longer contagious?
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Varicella is a highly contagious infectious disease of childhood. It is no longer contagious when the last lesion has broken open and crusted over. Until then the virus can be spread via respiratory droplets, by contact with the saliva of an infected child, or by touching an unbroken blister or the fluid within a blister.
Varicella is a highly contagious infectious disease of childhood. It is no longer contagious when the last lesion has broken open and crusted over. Until then the virus can be spread via respiratory droplets, by contact with the saliva of an infected child, or by touching an unbroken blister or the fluid within a blister.
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A school nurse is holding a question and answer meeting for parents following a recent outbreak of scarlet fever. Which of the following would the nurse confirm as false?
A school nurse is holding a question and answer meeting for parents following a recent outbreak of scarlet fever. Which of the following would the nurse confirm as false?
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Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by group A S_treptococcus_ that is transmitted through the air. Children who are sensitive to the bacterial toxin may develop a rash, although some will not. Infants and toddlers under the age of two are rarely seen with the disease.
Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by group A S_treptococcus_ that is transmitted through the air. Children who are sensitive to the bacterial toxin may develop a rash, although some will not. Infants and toddlers under the age of two are rarely seen with the disease.
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A 3-day-old infant is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia. A bilirubin test is required by capillary heel puncture. The nurse does all of the following except .
A 3-day-old infant is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia. A bilirubin test is required by capillary heel puncture. The nurse does all of the following except .
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Avoid squeezing the infant's heel if possible. Squeezing causes hemolysis of the specimen. Too much pressure may also result in damage to the tissue. Turning off the bilirubin treatment lights is also important because exposure to the light may alter the bilirubin in the sample. Cleansing the site of puncture is important, and warming the area will increase the capillary blood flow.
Avoid squeezing the infant's heel if possible. Squeezing causes hemolysis of the specimen. Too much pressure may also result in damage to the tissue. Turning off the bilirubin treatment lights is also important because exposure to the light may alter the bilirubin in the sample. Cleansing the site of puncture is important, and warming the area will increase the capillary blood flow.
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Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands would indicate which of the following conditions?
Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands would indicate which of the following conditions?
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Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands are all indicative of infection with the mumps virus. Symptoms typically last for 7-10 days, though sequelae such as hearing damage and testicular disorders can be long-lasting or even permanent.
Parotid gland enlargement, fever, myalgia, and tender salivary glands are all indicative of infection with the mumps virus. Symptoms typically last for 7-10 days, though sequelae such as hearing damage and testicular disorders can be long-lasting or even permanent.
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While using an otoscope, how does the practitioner correctly examine the tympanic membrane of a toddler?
While using an otoscope, how does the practitioner correctly examine the tympanic membrane of a toddler?
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Examine the eardrum of infants and toddlers by pulling down on the ear lobe. Examine the eardrum of an older child by pulling up on the outer pinna. Additional help from colleagues or caregivers may be necessary when examining small or upset children.
Examine the eardrum of infants and toddlers by pulling down on the ear lobe. Examine the eardrum of an older child by pulling up on the outer pinna. Additional help from colleagues or caregivers may be necessary when examining small or upset children.
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A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
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This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
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A mother brings her child in for paroxysmal bouts of 10-15 coughs followed by 1-2 deep gasping breaths. It started as a simple cold and cough, which seemed to be getting better before the gasping paroxysmal coughing started. The coughing is severe enough that he has vomited several times. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A mother brings her child in for paroxysmal bouts of 10-15 coughs followed by 1-2 deep gasping breaths. It started as a simple cold and cough, which seemed to be getting better before the gasping paroxysmal coughing started. The coughing is severe enough that he has vomited several times. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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The most likely diagnosis in this case is pertussis, also known as whooping cough. This is caused by Bordetella pertussis, a gram-negative encapsulated coccobacillus. It begins as a seemingly normal upper respiratory infection, which progresses two weeks after onset into paroxysms of 5-15 violent coughs followed by a forceful inspiratory gasp, often described as a "whoop." Coughing is often forceful enough to induce vomiting, nosebleeds, or subconjunctival hemorrhage. Croup, pneumonia, and bronchitis are all conditions that include cough, though none of them will generally present with this degree of gasping, vomiting, or blood vessel damage due to cough.
The most likely diagnosis in this case is pertussis, also known as whooping cough. This is caused by Bordetella pertussis, a gram-negative encapsulated coccobacillus. It begins as a seemingly normal upper respiratory infection, which progresses two weeks after onset into paroxysms of 5-15 violent coughs followed by a forceful inspiratory gasp, often described as a "whoop." Coughing is often forceful enough to induce vomiting, nosebleeds, or subconjunctival hemorrhage. Croup, pneumonia, and bronchitis are all conditions that include cough, though none of them will generally present with this degree of gasping, vomiting, or blood vessel damage due to cough.
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Which of the following is a bacterium frequently responsible for causing urinary tract infections?
Which of the following is a bacterium frequently responsible for causing urinary tract infections?
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Escherichia coli is a bacteria that lives in the normal flora of the intestines. However, it is also a frequent cause of urinary tract infections. Candida albicans is a fungus that frequently causes thrush and vaginitis. Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for leprosy or Hansen's disease. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete responsible for syphilis. Lastly, Clostridium botulinum is responsible for botulism as a result of it's secretion of a neurotoxin.
Escherichia coli is a bacteria that lives in the normal flora of the intestines. However, it is also a frequent cause of urinary tract infections. Candida albicans is a fungus that frequently causes thrush and vaginitis. Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for leprosy or Hansen's disease. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete responsible for syphilis. Lastly, Clostridium botulinum is responsible for botulism as a result of it's secretion of a neurotoxin.
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Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
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HIV is easily spread through all of the listed body fluids with the exception of saliva. A person may not contract HIV through exchange of saliva during activities such as kissing or sharing eating utensils.
HIV is easily spread through all of the listed body fluids with the exception of saliva. A person may not contract HIV through exchange of saliva during activities such as kissing or sharing eating utensils.
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A 75 year old female with end-stage renal failure asks her nurse for advice about her diet. Knowing that this patient must adhere to a low-potassium diet, the nurse cautions her against which of the following foods?
A 75 year old female with end-stage renal failure asks her nurse for advice about her diet. Knowing that this patient must adhere to a low-potassium diet, the nurse cautions her against which of the following foods?
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Orange juice is very high in potassium. One 12oz glass of orange juice contains 705mg of potassium. This could easily increase blood potassium to dangerous levels. The other fruits and vegetables listed are all low-potassium foods suitable for consumption by individuals needing to follow a low potassium diet.
Orange juice is very high in potassium. One 12oz glass of orange juice contains 705mg of potassium. This could easily increase blood potassium to dangerous levels. The other fruits and vegetables listed are all low-potassium foods suitable for consumption by individuals needing to follow a low potassium diet.
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Strawberry tongue and maculopapular ("sandpaper") rash are commonly seen in what childhood exanthem?
Strawberry tongue and maculopapular ("sandpaper") rash are commonly seen in what childhood exanthem?
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Strawberry tongue (glossitis) and maculopapular ("sandpaper") rash are commonly seen in scarlet fever, a condition caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often after a bout of strep throat. The other exanthems listed can all cause erythematous rash, though none are associated with glossitis.
Strawberry tongue (glossitis) and maculopapular ("sandpaper") rash are commonly seen in scarlet fever, a condition caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often after a bout of strep throat. The other exanthems listed can all cause erythematous rash, though none are associated with glossitis.
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A nurse working in labor and delivery is responsible to assessing a newborn according to the APGAR scale. The newborn infant is noted to have a vigorous good cry, a heart rate of 97, with good reflexes, and acrocyanosis.
What is the newborn's APGAR scale according to these findings?
A nurse working in labor and delivery is responsible to assessing a newborn according to the APGAR scale. The newborn infant is noted to have a vigorous good cry, a heart rate of 97, with good reflexes, and acrocyanosis.
What is the newborn's APGAR scale according to these findings?
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The APGAR score is 8, the child has received a score of 2 under respiration for good cry, a score of 2 under cry reflex for vigorous crying, a score of 2 under reflexes for good reflexes, a score of 1 for heart rate of 97 (under 100 bpm), and and score of 1 for color for acrocyanosis (blue limbs, pink body).
The APGAR score is 8, the child has received a score of 2 under respiration for good cry, a score of 2 under cry reflex for vigorous crying, a score of 2 under reflexes for good reflexes, a score of 1 for heart rate of 97 (under 100 bpm), and and score of 1 for color for acrocyanosis (blue limbs, pink body).
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Which of the following increase the risk of endometriosis?
Which of the following increase the risk of endometriosis?
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The incidence of endometriosis increases significantly in individuals with a family history of the condition. Other contributing factors are sedentary lifestyle (lack of exercise), presence of an intrauterine device, a diet high in fat, the presence of estrogen dominance, and liver dysfunction (due to decreased estrogen metabolism).
The incidence of endometriosis increases significantly in individuals with a family history of the condition. Other contributing factors are sedentary lifestyle (lack of exercise), presence of an intrauterine device, a diet high in fat, the presence of estrogen dominance, and liver dysfunction (due to decreased estrogen metabolism).
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A nurse is looking over a basic metabolic panel for a 69 year old male. She notices that his BUN is
. This value is .
A nurse is looking over a basic metabolic panel for a 69 year old male. She notices that his BUN is . This value is .
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BUN, or blood urea nitrogen, is a measurement of the kidney's ability to excrete urea, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism. This patient's BUN is within normal range: the reference range for BUN is
.
BUN, or blood urea nitrogen, is a measurement of the kidney's ability to excrete urea, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism. This patient's BUN is within normal range: the reference range for BUN is .
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Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
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aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
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Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
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75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
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The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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All of the following medications are considered first-line treatments of absence seizures except .
All of the following medications are considered first-line treatments of absence seizures except .
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The most commonly prescribed medication for absence seizures is Ethosuximide. Lamotrigine and valproic acid may also be used if seizures are unable to be controlled with ethosuximide. Carbamazepine, a common medication prescribed for simple and complex partial seizures, is specifically contraindicated in absence seizures.
The most commonly prescribed medication for absence seizures is Ethosuximide. Lamotrigine and valproic acid may also be used if seizures are unable to be controlled with ethosuximide. Carbamazepine, a common medication prescribed for simple and complex partial seizures, is specifically contraindicated in absence seizures.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
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The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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