Injuries and Disorders - Anatomy
Card 1 of 888
Which of the following is not typically used as part of a pulmonary function test (spirometric test)?
Which of the following is not typically used as part of a pulmonary function test (spirometric test)?
Tap to reveal answer
Pulmonary function tests or spirometric tests are tests designed to measure a host of breathing functions. Since values vary depending on body position, time of day, and other factors, most metrics have a high tolerance for variance and typically require a person to score below 80% or above 120% of their expected values before a result is considered "abnormal". These tests are most often employed diagnostically, but may also be used to check up on the progress of a treatment program.
A laryngoscope is used to view the larynx and epiglottis, but does not provide quantitative functional data.
Pulmonary function tests or spirometric tests are tests designed to measure a host of breathing functions. Since values vary depending on body position, time of day, and other factors, most metrics have a high tolerance for variance and typically require a person to score below 80% or above 120% of their expected values before a result is considered "abnormal". These tests are most often employed diagnostically, but may also be used to check up on the progress of a treatment program.
A laryngoscope is used to view the larynx and epiglottis, but does not provide quantitative functional data.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following measurements is not typically taken during a pulmonary function test (spirometric test)?
Which of the following measurements is not typically taken during a pulmonary function test (spirometric test)?
Tap to reveal answer
Spirometric tests typically measure between 10-20 metrics of respiratory health, including airflow, intake/outtake, and total volume. Oxygen saturation is a measure of the blood's ability to bond oxygen to hemoglobin, and is typically measured during one or more blood tests.
Spirometric tests typically measure between 10-20 metrics of respiratory health, including airflow, intake/outtake, and total volume. Oxygen saturation is a measure of the blood's ability to bond oxygen to hemoglobin, and is typically measured during one or more blood tests.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
When one interprets images or performs a physical exam, what landmark can be used to determine the level of the carina (division point of trachea)?
When one interprets images or performs a physical exam, what landmark can be used to determine the level of the carina (division point of trachea)?
Tap to reveal answer
The carina seems to be consistently located between the T4/T5 intervertebral disk level in most people. These vertebral levels are used as landmarks to identify the carina and, consequently, the trachea above it and the left and right primary bronchi below it.
The carina seems to be consistently located between the T4/T5 intervertebral disk level in most people. These vertebral levels are used as landmarks to identify the carina and, consequently, the trachea above it and the left and right primary bronchi below it.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
A 22-year old male was brought to the shock trauma bay after sustaining a gunshot to the chest. His blood pressure on arrival was 78/36 with a pulse of 78 and two large-bore IVs were inserted to begin fluid resuscitation. He is unresponsive with decreased breath sounds and is immediately intubated. He is not a heavy man, but his heart sounds are muffled and you note distention of his jugular veins. Ultrasound does not reveal any fluid collections in the abdomen, but does reveal fluid in the pericardium. After a liter of fluid is given, his pressure is now 50 systolic by palpation and pulse is 52. What is your diagnosis?
A 22-year old male was brought to the shock trauma bay after sustaining a gunshot to the chest. His blood pressure on arrival was 78/36 with a pulse of 78 and two large-bore IVs were inserted to begin fluid resuscitation. He is unresponsive with decreased breath sounds and is immediately intubated. He is not a heavy man, but his heart sounds are muffled and you note distention of his jugular veins. Ultrasound does not reveal any fluid collections in the abdomen, but does reveal fluid in the pericardium. After a liter of fluid is given, his pressure is now 50 systolic by palpation and pulse is 52. What is your diagnosis?
Tap to reveal answer
This man is deteriorating from cardiac tamponade, a condition in which blood is pooling around the heart and hindering its ability to fill during diastole (relaxation).
Doctors should suspect cardiac tamponade when a patient has hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distention (Beck's triad). Ultrasound will show a fluid collection in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart. Treatment is with immediate pericardiocentesis and fluid resuscitation.
Tension pneumothorax occurs when damage to the lung results in leakage of air into the pleural space. This causes equilibration of pressures between the lung and pleural space, leading to difficulty during inhalation. Positive pressure ventilation can help alleviate this condition. A splenic laceration will result in internal bleeding in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen. Pelvic fractures generally result from trauma during a fall or lateral impact and may cause damage to pelvic organs, but would not likely be linked to cardiac abnormalities. Acute myocardial infarction, or heart attack, occurs from blockage of or damage to the coronary arteries, resulting in a loss of blood flow to the tissues of the heart.
This man is deteriorating from cardiac tamponade, a condition in which blood is pooling around the heart and hindering its ability to fill during diastole (relaxation).
Doctors should suspect cardiac tamponade when a patient has hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distention (Beck's triad). Ultrasound will show a fluid collection in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart. Treatment is with immediate pericardiocentesis and fluid resuscitation.
Tension pneumothorax occurs when damage to the lung results in leakage of air into the pleural space. This causes equilibration of pressures between the lung and pleural space, leading to difficulty during inhalation. Positive pressure ventilation can help alleviate this condition. A splenic laceration will result in internal bleeding in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen. Pelvic fractures generally result from trauma during a fall or lateral impact and may cause damage to pelvic organs, but would not likely be linked to cardiac abnormalities. Acute myocardial infarction, or heart attack, occurs from blockage of or damage to the coronary arteries, resulting in a loss of blood flow to the tissues of the heart.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Aortic valve replacement is necessary if the valve becomes leaky, which is also known as .
Aortic valve replacement is necessary if the valve becomes leaky, which is also known as .
Tap to reveal answer
Aortic regurgitation is the term for leaky, insufficient valves. Aortic regurgitation can be repaired via a valve replacement procedure. Aortic stenosis is hardening of the arteries. Pulmonary embolisms is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries. Hypertension is also known as high blood pressure.
Aortic regurgitation is the term for leaky, insufficient valves. Aortic regurgitation can be repaired via a valve replacement procedure. Aortic stenosis is hardening of the arteries. Pulmonary embolisms is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries. Hypertension is also known as high blood pressure.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
What does an inverted or absent P wave (as an early beat) represent?
What does an inverted or absent P wave (as an early beat) represent?
Tap to reveal answer
A premature junctional/nodal beat would be represented on an ECG as an inverted or absent P wave. In a premature junctional/nodal beat, the atrioventricular (AV) node is firing before the sinoatrial (SA) node. Since the AV node is at the bottom of the right atrium, the net vector of atrial depolarization is occurring in a more upward direction, causing the P wave to be absent or inverted. Note that there would be a compensatory pause after the premature beat.The answer could not be a premature atrial contraction because the P wave is absent or inverted (P wave would be normal in a premature atrial contraction (PAC)).
A premature junctional/nodal beat would be represented on an ECG as an inverted or absent P wave. In a premature junctional/nodal beat, the atrioventricular (AV) node is firing before the sinoatrial (SA) node. Since the AV node is at the bottom of the right atrium, the net vector of atrial depolarization is occurring in a more upward direction, causing the P wave to be absent or inverted. Note that there would be a compensatory pause after the premature beat.The answer could not be a premature atrial contraction because the P wave is absent or inverted (P wave would be normal in a premature atrial contraction (PAC)).
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following conditions is the most serious?
Which of the following conditions is the most serious?
Tap to reveal answer
Ventricular fibrillation is a very serious issue that requires immediate defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is the result of ventricular beats originating from many different automaticity foci, so the QRS looks squiggly, very fast, and incoherent. There are no P waves since the beats are originating in the ventricles.
Ventricular fibrillation is a very serious issue that requires immediate defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is the result of ventricular beats originating from many different automaticity foci, so the QRS looks squiggly, very fast, and incoherent. There are no P waves since the beats are originating in the ventricles.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which AV block is characterized by a longer than normal PR interval (of consistent length)?
Which AV block is characterized by a longer than normal PR interval (of consistent length)?
Tap to reveal answer
In First Degree AV Block, there is a longer than normal PR interval (>.20s) due to slowed AV node conduction. Second degree, Mobitz Type 1 (Wenckebach) is progressive lengthening of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS. Second Degree, Mobitz Type 2 is sudden dropping of the QRS (no lengthening of PR interval). Third Degree AV Block is when there is no relationship between the P and the QRS.
In First Degree AV Block, there is a longer than normal PR interval (>.20s) due to slowed AV node conduction. Second degree, Mobitz Type 1 (Wenckebach) is progressive lengthening of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS. Second Degree, Mobitz Type 2 is sudden dropping of the QRS (no lengthening of PR interval). Third Degree AV Block is when there is no relationship between the P and the QRS.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following is a difference between Bundle Branch Block (BBB) and a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?
Which of the following is a difference between Bundle Branch Block (BBB) and a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?
Tap to reveal answer
A bundle branch block is a block in one of the bundle branches, causing a long QRS (>.10 seconds). It is different than a PVC in that a bundle branch block will show a P wave since the beats are still originating in the atria. Bundle Branch Blocks also tend to show a notched QRS.
A bundle branch block is a block in one of the bundle branches, causing a long QRS (>.10 seconds). It is different than a PVC in that a bundle branch block will show a P wave since the beats are still originating in the atria. Bundle Branch Blocks also tend to show a notched QRS.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
What is a normal PR interval length?
What is a normal PR interval length?
Tap to reveal answer
The normal PR interval length is .12 - .20 seconds. The PR interval represents the time lag from the onset of atrial depolarization to the onset of ventricular depolarization. Most of the time lag occurs in the AV node, and it allows atrial systole to occur. This allows the ventricles to have time to fill before ventricular systole.
The normal PR interval length is .12 - .20 seconds. The PR interval represents the time lag from the onset of atrial depolarization to the onset of ventricular depolarization. Most of the time lag occurs in the AV node, and it allows atrial systole to occur. This allows the ventricles to have time to fill before ventricular systole.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
What is the criteria for tachycardia?
What is the criteria for tachycardia?
Tap to reveal answer
Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heart rate of rate >100 beats per minute.
Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heart rate of rate >100 beats per minute.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following would warrant the most investigation by a health care professional?
Which of the following would warrant the most investigation by a health care professional?
Tap to reveal answer
Bradycardia is defined as heart rate <60 bpm. In an endurance athlete, there tends to be higher stroke volume/higher vagal tone, so it is typical for an endurance athlete to have a resting heart rate below 60 and still meet normal cardiac output. It a non-endurance athlete, a resting heart rate of 45 bpm may warrant some investigation.
Bradycardia is defined as heart rate <60 bpm. In an endurance athlete, there tends to be higher stroke volume/higher vagal tone, so it is typical for an endurance athlete to have a resting heart rate below 60 and still meet normal cardiac output. It a non-endurance athlete, a resting heart rate of 45 bpm may warrant some investigation.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following would be characteristic of congestive heart failure?
Which of the following would be characteristic of congestive heart failure?
Tap to reveal answer
Ejection fraction is a measurement of how much blood blood the ventricles pump out with each contraction as a fraction of the end-diastolic volume. Mathematically, this is (stroke volume) divided by (end-diastolic volume). In congestive heart failure, the heart is weakened and quivers, and it has a hard time pumping blood out. An ejection fraction (EF) < 40% may be evidence of congestive heart failure.
Ejection fraction is a measurement of how much blood blood the ventricles pump out with each contraction as a fraction of the end-diastolic volume. Mathematically, this is (stroke volume) divided by (end-diastolic volume). In congestive heart failure, the heart is weakened and quivers, and it has a hard time pumping blood out. An ejection fraction (EF) < 40% may be evidence of congestive heart failure.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Besides the sinoatrial node, which of the following cardiac structures has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization?
Besides the sinoatrial node, which of the following cardiac structures has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization?
Tap to reveal answer
If the sinoatrial node becomes damaged and is unable to drive the rate of spontaneous depolarization in the heart (at its normal rate of 60-100 beats per minute), other cardiac pacemaker cells exist to ensure that the heart continues beating. The atrioventricular node is also known as the secondary pacemaker because these cells spontaneously discharge at a rate of 40-60 beats per minute. It is worth noting that if both the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes are damaged, the bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers are also capable of producing a spontaneous action potential at a rate of 30-40 beats per minute.
If the sinoatrial node becomes damaged and is unable to drive the rate of spontaneous depolarization in the heart (at its normal rate of 60-100 beats per minute), other cardiac pacemaker cells exist to ensure that the heart continues beating. The atrioventricular node is also known as the secondary pacemaker because these cells spontaneously discharge at a rate of 40-60 beats per minute. It is worth noting that if both the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes are damaged, the bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers are also capable of producing a spontaneous action potential at a rate of 30-40 beats per minute.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following cells is stimulated to release histamine?
Which of the following cells is stimulated to release histamine?
Tap to reveal answer
Mast cell functions in allergic responses by release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation. Macrophages are part of the innate immune system and function to engulf and remove debris. Neutrophils are also part of the innate immune system and have macrophagic properties, especially when fighting bacterial infection. Natural killer cells bind to and destroy pathogens without the use of antigens.
Mast cell functions in allergic responses by release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation. Macrophages are part of the innate immune system and function to engulf and remove debris. Neutrophils are also part of the innate immune system and have macrophagic properties, especially when fighting bacterial infection. Natural killer cells bind to and destroy pathogens without the use of antigens.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?
Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?
Tap to reveal answer
Calor—or redness—is associated with increased blood flow, which can result from inflammation. During an inflammation response, histamine release results in vasodilation and increased bloodflow, which can cause the infalmmed area to appear red.
Calor—or redness—is associated with increased blood flow, which can result from inflammation. During an inflammation response, histamine release results in vasodilation and increased bloodflow, which can cause the infalmmed area to appear red.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
What type of microbiota infect individuals who are already immunocompromised?
What type of microbiota infect individuals who are already immunocompromised?
Tap to reveal answer
Opportunistic microbiota can form biofilms and affect patients who are immunocompromised, suchs as someone with AIDS or a chronic illness.
Resident microbiota are always present in the body and frequently have mutualistic relationships with their human hosts. Transient microbiota are present at some times, but absent at others. Pathogens affect healthy individuals, as well as those who may be immunocompromised.
Opportunistic microbiota can form biofilms and affect patients who are immunocompromised, suchs as someone with AIDS or a chronic illness.
Resident microbiota are always present in the body and frequently have mutualistic relationships with their human hosts. Transient microbiota are present at some times, but absent at others. Pathogens affect healthy individuals, as well as those who may be immunocompromised.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
Which of the following does not release histamine?
Which of the following does not release histamine?
Tap to reveal answer
Mast cells are perhaps the best-known producers of histamine. Basophils also release histamine and contribute to the inflammatory response, while platelets are also capable of releasing histamine. Neutrophils are best-known for their phagocytic properties, and do not produce histamine.
Mast cells are perhaps the best-known producers of histamine. Basophils also release histamine and contribute to the inflammatory response, while platelets are also capable of releasing histamine. Neutrophils are best-known for their phagocytic properties, and do not produce histamine.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
With regard to zonal anatomy of the prostate gland, where does benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) mainly occur?
With regard to zonal anatomy of the prostate gland, where does benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) mainly occur?
Tap to reveal answer
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is usually seen in the transitional zone. Most carcinomas originating in the peripheral zone. The posterior zone does not exist.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is usually seen in the transitional zone. Most carcinomas originating in the peripheral zone. The posterior zone does not exist.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →
A positive pivot-shift test of the knee, even after a successful anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction suggests lack of structural integrity of what ligament?
A positive pivot-shift test of the knee, even after a successful anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction suggests lack of structural integrity of what ligament?
Tap to reveal answer
Although it's function has only recently been described, surgical literature suggests that the anterolateral ligament functions to provide additional rotary stability to the knee. Because of this, some patients who have had an ACL reconstruction, but not an ALL reconstruction, will demonstrate a positive pivot-shift sign, a sign of knee rotational instability upon flexion of the tibia at the knee during medial rotation.
Although it's function has only recently been described, surgical literature suggests that the anterolateral ligament functions to provide additional rotary stability to the knee. Because of this, some patients who have had an ACL reconstruction, but not an ALL reconstruction, will demonstrate a positive pivot-shift sign, a sign of knee rotational instability upon flexion of the tibia at the knee during medial rotation.
← Didn't Know|Knew It →